Difference between PEMDAS and BODMAS. - Mathematics Stack …
Dec 21, 2022 · Division is the inverse operation of multiplication, and subtraction is the inverse of addition. Because of that, multiplication and division are actually one step done together from left to …
Who first defined truth as "adæquatio rei et intellectus"?
Mar 28, 2022 · António Manuel Martins claims (@44:41 of his lecture "Fonseca on Signs") that the origin of what is now called the correspondence theory of truth, Veritas est adæquatio rei et …
Prove that $1^3 + 2^3 + ... + n^3 = (1+ 2 + ... + n)^2$
HINT: You want that last expression to turn out to be $\big (1+2+\ldots+k+ (k+1)\big)^2$, so you want $ (k+1)^3$ to be equal to the difference $$\big (1+2+\ldots+k+ (k+1)\big)^2- (1+2+\ldots+k)^2\;.$$ …
Why is $\\infty\\times 0$ indeterminate? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
"Infinity times zero" or "zero times infinity" is a "battle of two giants". Zero is so small that it makes everyone vanish, but infinite is so huge that it makes everyone infinite after multiplication. In …
Taylor Series for $\log (x)$ - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Nov 29, 2013 · the Taylor series for ln (x) is relatively simple : 1/x , -1/x^2, 1/x^3, -1/x^4, and so on iirc. log (x) = ln (x)/ln (10) via the change-of-base rule, thus the Taylor series for log (x) is just the Taylor …
Good book for self study of a First Course in Real Analysis
Sep 6, 2011 · Does anyone have a recommendation for a book to use for the self study of real analysis? Several years ago when I completed about half a semester of Real Analysis I, the instructor used …
Programación Lineal (PL) - Mathematics Stack Exchange
El resultado de correr el proceso 3 por una hora es 2 barriles de gasolina 3. Todas las semanas se podrían comprar 200 barriles de crudo 1 a 2 dólares el barril y 300 barriles de crudo 2 a 3 dólares el …
factorial - Why does 0! = 1? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
The theorem that $\binom {n} {k} = \frac {n!} {k! (n-k)!}$ already assumes $0!$ is defined to be $1$. Otherwise this would be restricted to $0 <k < n$. A reason that we do define $0!$ to be $1$ is so that …
Direct proof that integral of $1/x$ is $\ln (x)$ [closed]
Oct 3, 2021 · Want to improve this question? As written, this question is lacking some of the information it needs to be answered. If the author adds details in comments, consider editing them into the …
Problem when integrating $e^x / x$. - Mathematics Stack Exchange
This part looks right: $$\int {\frac {e^x} {x}} \, dx = \frac {e^x} {x} + \frac {e^x} {x^2} + \frac {2e^x} {x^3} + \frac {6 e^x} {x^4} + \frac {24 e^x} {x^5} + \cdots+ \frac {n!e^x} {x^ {n+1}}+ (n+1)!\int \frac {e^x} {x^ …